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Civil Procedure Practice Exam Questions

Practice exam questions covering personal jurisdiction, subject matter jurisdiction, pleading, discovery, summary judgment, and res judicata.

3 Essay Questions
5 Multiple Choice Questions

Essay Questions

Practice these issue-spotting hypotheticals under timed conditions. Write your analysis first, then compare to the model answer outline.

Essay Question 1

45 minutes
PlastiCo, a Delaware corporation with its principal place of business in Ohio, manufactures plastic food containers. PlastiCo sells its containers through Amazon and its own website to customers nationwide. Maria, a citizen of Oregon, purchased PlastiCo containers from Amazon. She alleges the containers leached harmful chemicals into her food, causing $50,000 in medical expenses. She wants to file suit in federal court in Oregon. PlastiCo has no offices, employees, or property in Oregon. However, PlastiCo's website is accessible in Oregon, PlastiCo ships 500-600 orders per year to Oregon customers, and PlastiCo has an ongoing contract with an Oregon-based marketing firm. Analyze: (1) Does the federal court in Oregon have personal jurisdiction over PlastiCo? (2) Does the court have subject matter jurisdiction? (3) What challenges might PlastiCo raise?
Model Answer OutlineClick to reveal
  1. 1.Personal jurisdiction -- general jurisdiction: PlastiCo is incorporated in Delaware and has its principal place of business in Ohio. Under Daimler AG v. Bauman, general jurisdiction exists only where a corporation is 'at home' -- typically its state of incorporation or principal place of business. Oregon is not such a state.
  2. 2.Specific jurisdiction -- minimum contacts: Under International Shoe and its progeny, specific jurisdiction requires (1) purposeful availment of the forum, (2) the claim arises out of or relates to the defendant's contacts with the forum, and (3) the exercise of jurisdiction is reasonable.
  3. 3.Purposeful availment: PlastiCo ships 500-600 orders per year to Oregon and contracts with an Oregon marketing firm. This may constitute purposeful availment. But under Walden v. Fiore, the contacts must be the defendant's own, not just the plaintiff's unilateral activity.
  4. 4.Relatedness: Maria's claim arises from a product purchased through Amazon, not directly from PlastiCo's Oregon contacts. The stream of commerce analysis (Asahi/J. McIntyre) is relevant -- did PlastiCo purposefully direct its products to Oregon?
  5. 5.Subject matter jurisdiction -- diversity: Maria (Oregon) vs. PlastiCo (Delaware/Ohio). Complete diversity exists. Amount in controversy is $50,000 -- but the threshold under 28 USC 1332 is $75,000. Maria's claim may fall short unless she can plead additional damages (pain and suffering, future medical costs) in good faith exceeding $75,000.
  6. 6.12(b) motions: PlastiCo may file a 12(b)(2) motion to dismiss for lack of personal jurisdiction and/or a 12(b)(1) motion for lack of subject matter jurisdiction if the amount in controversy is insufficient.

Essay Question 2

30 minutes
Attorney filed a complaint in federal court on behalf of his client, alleging that BigBank engaged in a fraudulent lending scheme. The complaint contained detailed allegations about meetings that never occurred and fabricated loan documents. Attorney relied entirely on his client's oral statements and conducted no independent investigation. BigBank moved for sanctions under Rule 11. During discovery, it became apparent that many of the complaint's factual allegations were false. Attorney's client had fabricated the story to extort a settlement from BigBank. After the case was dismissed, BigBank suffered $200,000 in legal fees defending the action. BigBank also filed a separate action for malicious prosecution against both Attorney and the client. Analyze: (1) Rule 11 sanctions against Attorney, (2) The malicious prosecution claim, and (3) Attorney's potential ethical obligations.
Model Answer OutlineClick to reveal
  1. 1.Rule 11(b) obligations: By presenting a pleading, Attorney certifies that (1) it is not presented for an improper purpose, (2) legal contentions are warranted, (3) factual contentions have evidentiary support or will likely have support after investigation, and (4) denials are warranted.
  2. 2.Rule 11(b)(3) violation: Attorney relied solely on client's oral statements without any independent investigation. Fabricated meetings and documents should have been discoverable with reasonable inquiry. The 'reasonable inquiry' standard is objective.
  3. 3.Safe harbor provision: Rule 11(c)(2) requires 21-day safe harbor before filing a motion for sanctions. If BigBank served the motion and Attorney did not withdraw the complaint within 21 days, sanctions are appropriate.
  4. 4.Sanctions: The court has discretion to impose sanctions sufficient to deter repetition. Options include monetary sanctions (but not legal fees if the motion is by the court sua sponte), striking the pleading, or nonmonetary directives. Attorney fees of $200,000 may be awarded.
  5. 5.Malicious prosecution: Elements: (1) prior proceedings terminated in BigBank's favor (case dismissed), (2) absence of probable cause, (3) malice/improper purpose, (4) damages. The client's fabrication satisfies malice. Attorney's liability depends on whether Attorney knew or should have known the claims were baseless.
  6. 6.Ethical obligations: Attorney may have violated Model Rules 3.1 (meritorious claims), 3.3 (candor toward the tribunal), and 8.4 (misconduct). Potential referral to disciplinary authorities.

Essay Question 3

30 minutes
In 2024, Tenant sued Landlord in State Court A (a court of general jurisdiction) for breach of the lease agreement, seeking $20,000 in damages. The jury returned a verdict for Landlord, finding that Landlord had not breached the lease. In 2025, Tenant filed a new lawsuit against Landlord in State Court B, alleging that Landlord had violated the state housing code by failing to maintain the heating system -- the same heating system issue that was the basis of the 2024 breach-of-lease claim. Tenant seeks $30,000 in damages. Landlord moves to dismiss on claim preclusion grounds. Additionally, in a separate 2025 action, Neighbor (who was not a party to the 2024 case) sues Landlord for housing code violations in Neighbor's unit, citing the same general pattern of neglect. Neighbor seeks to use the 2024 jury finding offensively. Analyze the preclusion issues in both the Tenant and Neighbor actions.
Model Answer OutlineClick to reveal
  1. 1.Claim preclusion (res judicata) in Tenant's second suit: Claim preclusion requires (1) a final judgment on the merits, (2) the same parties (or their privies), and (3) the same claim or cause of action.
  2. 2.Same claim analysis: Under the transactional test (Restatement Second of Judgments), all claims arising from the same transaction or occurrence must be brought together. The heating system issue was the same factual basis in both suits. Even though the legal theory differs (breach of lease vs. housing code violation), the claims arise from the same transaction.
  3. 3.Tenant's second claim is likely barred by claim preclusion because Tenant should have raised the housing code claim in the first action.
  4. 4.Issue preclusion (collateral estoppel) in Neighbor's action: Issue preclusion requires (1) the same issue was actually litigated and decided, (2) the determination was essential to the judgment, and (3) the party against whom preclusion is asserted had a full and fair opportunity to litigate.
  5. 5.Offensive non-mutual collateral estoppel: Neighbor was not a party to the 2024 case. Under Parklane Hosiery v. Shore, offensive non-mutual collateral estoppel may be permitted but is discretionary. However, Landlord won the 2024 case, so there is no adverse finding against Landlord for Neighbor to use offensively. Preclusion does not help Neighbor.
  6. 6.Mutuality requirement: Even in jurisdictions that have abandoned the mutuality requirement, issue preclusion only works against the party who lost on the issue. Since Landlord prevailed, Neighbor cannot use the finding.

MBE-Style Multiple Choice Questions

Select the best answer for each question. Click "Reveal Answer" to see the correct answer and explanation.

Question 1

A citizen of State A sued a citizen of State B in federal court in State A, seeking $100,000 in damages for breach of contract. The defendant filed a motion to dismiss for improper venue. The contract was negotiated and signed in State C, performance was to occur in State B, and neither party resides in State C. Under 28 U.S.C. Section 1391, venue is proper in:

A.State A, because the plaintiff resides there.
B.State B, because a substantial part of the events giving rise to the claim occurred there.
C.State C, because the contract was signed there.
D.Both State B and State C, because substantial parts of the events occurred in each.
Reveal AnswerClick to reveal

Correct Answer: D

Under 28 U.S.C. Section 1391(b)(2), venue is proper in a district where a substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred. Both the signing of the contract (State C) and the place of performance (State B) are substantial parts of the events. Venue can be proper in multiple districts. State A would only be proper under the residency provision if the defendant also resided there.

Question 2

Plaintiff filed a diversity action in federal court against two defendants. During discovery, Plaintiff served interrogatories on Defendant 1 asking for all communications between the two defendants regarding the subject matter of the litigation. Defendant 1 objected, claiming attorney-client privilege because Defendant 1 and Defendant 2 share the same attorney. In a subsequent dispute between Defendant 1 and Defendant 2, the privilege:

A.Protects all communications between the co-clients and their shared attorney.
B.Does not apply to communications between co-clients who share an attorney in the same matter.
C.Applies only to communications made in the presence of the attorney.
D.Was waived when the defendants chose joint representation.
Reveal AnswerClick to reveal

Correct Answer: B

Under the joint-client or co-client doctrine, when two clients share the same attorney in the same matter, the privilege protects their communications from disclosure to third parties. However, in a subsequent dispute between the co-clients themselves, neither can invoke the privilege against the other regarding communications made during the joint representation.

Question 3

A plaintiff filed a complaint in federal court alleging negligence. The defendant filed an answer and a counterclaim for intentional infliction of emotional distress. The plaintiff failed to respond to the counterclaim within the time allowed by the Federal Rules. The defendant moved for default judgment on the counterclaim. The court should:

A.Grant default judgment automatically because the plaintiff failed to respond.
B.First enter a default under Rule 55(a), then consider whether default judgment is appropriate under Rule 55(b).
C.Deny the motion because default judgment cannot be entered against a plaintiff.
D.Deny the motion because the plaintiff's original complaint constitutes a response to the counterclaim.
Reveal AnswerClick to reveal

Correct Answer: B

Under Rule 55, default judgment is a two-step process. First, the clerk enters a default under Rule 55(a) when a party has failed to plead or otherwise defend. Then, default judgment may be entered under Rule 55(b). Default can be entered against any party who fails to respond to a claim, including a plaintiff who fails to respond to a counterclaim. The court has discretion and must consider the factors for setting aside default.

Question 4

In a federal diversity action, the plaintiff moved for summary judgment. The plaintiff submitted an affidavit, business records, and deposition testimony supporting every element of the claim. The defendant submitted no opposing evidence but argued that the plaintiff's evidence contained internal inconsistencies. Under Rule 56, the court should:

A.Grant summary judgment because the defendant failed to submit opposing evidence.
B.Deny summary judgment because the plaintiff always bears the ultimate burden of proof.
C.Grant summary judgment unless the internal inconsistencies create a genuine dispute of material fact.
D.Deny summary judgment because credibility determinations must be made by the jury.
Reveal AnswerClick to reveal

Correct Answer: C

Under Rule 56, summary judgment is appropriate when there is no genuine dispute as to any material fact. The movant must show entitlement to judgment as a matter of law. Even without opposing evidence, if the movant's own evidence contains internal inconsistencies, a genuine dispute of material fact may exist. However, if the inconsistencies are immaterial, summary judgment should be granted.

Question 5

A plaintiff from State A sued a defendant from State B in federal court in State B, alleging state-law claims. The case went to trial and a jury was selected. After opening statements, the defendant moved for judgment as a matter of law under Rule 50(a). The court should:

A.Grant the motion if the plaintiff's opening statement fails to state a legally sufficient claim.
B.Deny the motion because it is premature before the plaintiff presents evidence.
C.Grant the motion only if the defendant would also be entitled to summary judgment.
D.Deny the motion because Rule 50 motions can only be made after the close of all evidence.
Reveal AnswerClick to reveal

Correct Answer: B

Under Rule 50(a), a motion for judgment as a matter of law may be made after a party has been fully heard on an issue. After opening statements, the plaintiff has not yet been 'fully heard' -- no evidence has been presented. The motion is premature. The proper time for a Rule 50(a) motion is after the opposing party has presented its case.

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